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What Authors and others, between 1300 and the 2000, used the spelling Magick as opposed to magic?

Hint: Canterbury tales
Hint: Canterbury tales to begin.
Hint 2: The Magick Cup

4 COMMENTS

  1. A. Crowley
    The Canterbury Tales, really!? Wow!
    I’m gonna have to go re-invest in that book and refresh my memory! 😛
    Can’t say I know the ‘Magick Cup’ though…yet.
    Thanks Terry.

  2. I’ll say Crowley too, and from then on. I guess it became catchy. Gardner, I do believe, and all those writing about Wicca.
    Personally I don’t get caught up in the spelling, I spell it magic, regardless.

  3. Aleister Crowley started spelling it “magick” in order to differentiate it from sleigh-of-hand stage magic. He probably took it from old english.
    Looks like you “know” the answer and are quizzing us. I am mildly interested in your answer. However, I find reading Crowley more interesting than Canterbury Tales.

  4. The 17th century writer Jean de La Fontaine wrote “The Magick Cup”. He also spells historic, “historick”. Here’s the web site for anyone interested in reading it.
    http://www.bookrags.com/ebooks/5280/1.html#1
    Giambattista della Porta’s “Natural Magick”, 1584
    Aleister Crowley’s “Magick Without Tears”.
    http://www.hermetic.com/crowley/mwt/mwt_06.html
    According to this site Chaucer first used the word in the Man of Law’s Tale and it was written as magyk. This would have been in the 1380s. I’m checking for verification.
    http://www.isisinvestigations.com/Article_Etymology_of_Magic.html
    Terry ~ Is it in the Oxford English Dictionary? The above source cites it as a reference.
    I think the spelling is important for one reason, and that is to differentiate street magic from real Magick.

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