What are the origins of glossolalia (speaking in tongues)?

- Advertisement -

I know it exists and has existed in forms of Shamanism, Voudoun, and other mediumistic religions, and that it existed in several of the mystery religions of the Greco-Roman world, but do you have any information on its pre-Christian origins as well as its adoption from one religion to another?

- Advertisement -
Subscribe
Notify of
guest
5 Comments
Most Voted
Newest Oldest
Inline Feedbacks
View all comments
AutumnWynd777

By The Precious Holy Spirit.

Mountain Man

2nd chapter of the book of acts

pugjw9896

Speaking in tongues was the God given ‘gift’ of being able to speak and understand other languages…by the apostles and disciples…So that they could communicate with other races in preaching the good news…
(1 Corinthians 13:8) Love never fails. But whether there are [gifts of] prophesying, they will be done away with; whether there are tongues, they will cease; whether there is knowledge, it will be done away with.
It no longer occurs…so if some claim it does, it is not approved by God…as such it can only be promoted by Satan…the opposite.

robert C

when the disciples appeared and the holy spirit came upon them many spoke in the language of their birth, read in acts. chapter2
in genesis, the tower of babel when the language of the people was confused

The second coming of Davey

Children/babies do it, it’s a part of their natural development of language. I suppose it helps them gain control over their tongue, lips and jaw.
So yeah, I’d say it was copied(at least subconsciously) from children. No idea which culture though 🙂

Related

5
0
Would love your thoughts, please comment.x
()
x