If the disciple didn't believe in reincarnation, why did they ask Jesus "Who sinned, this man or his parents"?

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That he was *born* blind? The disciple knew he was born that way. How is it possible to sin before birth unless he had lived before. The account is in John 9:1-3.

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David H

Actually, they were thinking about placing the blame for his blindness upon the sins that his parents committed. Has nothing to do with previous lives and stuff.


This is one of the few references to reincarnation that didn’t get eradicated from the bible.

Blessed Cheesemaker (cancelled)

You have to remember that the God of the bible believed in generational curses. He used to harm children for the behavior of their parents or grandparents.
So when the disciple was asking who had sinned, he was really condemning the parents, not seeking a real answer.
God’s law is incredibly immoral and inhumane when you actually start to read it.


In the Jewish teaching and tradition of the time, people believed tht a person could be punished for something their parents did and also that afflictions such as blindness were punishment for something they did.
So if someone had any type of affliction, they believed someone had sinned and the quesiton was quite common.
It had nothing to do with reincarnation.
Jesus laid that to rest.


That has nothing to do with reincarnation.


All men are sinners even before birth.

Kristy B

because they did believe that our sins sometimes caused curses on the whole family or generation.


This has nothing to do with reincarnation. It has to do with the belief that the sins of a person could result in punishment being visited upon their children.
And Jesus clearly told the disciples it was neither. The man wasn’t blind because of any sin of his or his parents, but so that God’s power and mercy could be displayed in his healing.
John9:3 “Neither this man nor his parents sinned,” said Jesus, “but this happened so that the work of God might be displayed in his life.


In the christian doctrine, there is no reincarnation… However, you can inherit your ancestors sin, which is what was being addressed there.


It has nothing to do with reincarnation. They are saying the sins of the parents caused this punishment to befall their child. God states that man dies once.


If the parents had sinned before (like something really bad, because everybody sins. Some just sin worse than others.), that could brought judgment upon themselves in the form of offspring with a disability.


No. Somewhere in the old testament (can’t give chapter and verse) there is a section that speaks about the ‘sins of the fathers’ being visited on the children. That is what the disciples were referring to. The man could have been blind since birth because of something his forefathers did, or even something that happened in the womb. Remember that the Jews of that time had no idea what caused birth defects.


The questioner is asking a leading question. Jesus provides the answer. Neither. The text does not say the disciple knew the man was blind from birth it simply reveals this as a fact.

Ragan that is Called Ragan

Although it is no longer generally taught in the church, for much of Judaism and Christianity, it was believed that sins could be passed down in a family, so when a man sins, his children, and their children would also be responsible. So the question was put to Jesus, was this man a sinner, or did he come from a sinful family. So of course, Jesus knew this to be a load of garbage, and said as much…”It is not this man’s sin or his parents’ sin that made him be blind. This man was born blind…” It has nothing to do with reincarnation.


Some sins are generational besides original sins.
Jesus has the power to forgive sins. If we become servants of sin this may affect our bodies.


Born blind could be sin is wrong and bad but it is also a defect genetically. At the time they have to discuss birth defects.
Being spiritually blind is one thing.
Being physically blind is another thing.
Jesus the healer is important. Doctors to fix things up is good too.


The Bible says that children sometimes suffer the consequences of their parents’ or other ancestors’ sin. In a sense, everyone is doing that anyway because of the Fall. Remember “unto the seventh generation”?


“And God spake all these words, saying… Thou shalt have no other gods before me… Thou shalt not bow down thyself to them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me” (Exodus 20:1-6).
“The LORD is longsuffering, and of great mercy, forgiving iniquity and transgression, and by no means clearing the guilty, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation” (Num. 14:18).
I expect these passages from the Torah are what the disciples had in mind. However, I would argue that they were mistaken as to the meaning of these verses. The Bible provides a very clear answer to this:
“The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin” (Deut. 24:16).
God is saying that He will tolerate the iniquity introduced by the fathers for no more than three or four generations. In other words, God will allow a father to teach his children to disobey His commandments, and then allow those children to teach their children to disobey God’s commandments. However, in the third or fourth generation, God will visit the children with the intent of taking action against the sins of the fathers. God will look to see if the children are following after those same sins or whether they have turned away from them to obey God.


This has absolutely nothing to do with past lives. The disciples were trying to figure out the reason for this man being blind- so they tried to say it could be his parents sin, that cause his blindness at birth. They did not understand the reason for his blindness- it was not sin, it was to bring God glory- when Jesus healed him.


The reason he was born blind is that the works of God should be made manifest in him.
Jhn 9:3 Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.
Then later in the chapter we see the charge against the Pharisees.
Jhn 9:39 And Jesus said, For judgment I am come into this world, that they which see not might see; and that they which see might be made blind.
Jhn 9:40 And [some] of the Pharisees which were with him heard these words, and said unto him, Are we blind also?
Jhn 9:41 Jesus said unto them, If ye were blind, ye should have no sin: but now ye say, We see; therefore your sin remaineth.


I am In shock to all the answers here.
Obviously the post addresses the generational curses.
However, everybody who denies reincarnation here has blatantly skipped the fact that the disciples asked
“was it this man’s sin”– folks, can someone tell me where in the Bible it says a baby in a womb can sin? Cuz I can’t find it anywhere.
With prayer and seeking, god will reveal the truth. If it had nothing to do with reincarnation, don’t you think Jesus’s response would be- “no dummy, how can a man sin in his mothers womb?” but he doesn’t say that.
He says, “neither.” his response to the question tells all.
Pray over it- if you want the truth, it’s in front of you for God to reveal.


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