In particular, how radically could objective and experienced time diverge? (If we accept that the brain can represent time using something other than time itself, is there any necessary connection here at all? How exactly do temporally extended or ‘smeared’ representations work?)


  • The “we” isn’t given: this should be the questioner’s task, explaining why exactly this particular inquiry must necessarily be shared. Radical it is not.

  • Since perception becomes reality then whatever our mind perceives as time then that becomes our reality… our only reality. If a divergence occurs then our mind cannot perceive it.

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